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The Least Lie
#1
The Least Lie means, making the bid that comes closest to describing your hand, when it doesn't really fit anything.  This hand is an example:


AC AC KC QC JC AD KD KD QD QD JD AS AS TS JS TH  TH TH QH JH

You're South.  East bids 50.  Now what?  

There aren't that many cases where this comes into play.  For example, deciding between giving 20 and giving 30 is a matter of how you evaluate;  least lie isn't involved.  The common cases:

--You're using a strict aces bid, where it guarantees aces around...but you have the hand above as South.  East *passes*.  Choices are 50, 51, and 52.  The aces bid really does come closest;  50 as a save would also be plausible because of the diamond suit, but you do have a constructive hand for partner.

--Same situation, but now you as South are bidding first, AND it's double bidder out.  Same choices, and again...you've got a lot more help for partner than you might have.  A question of style comes into play.  I play that a passed partner will generally contribute 15 points, total, from meld and play.  In double bidder out, increased aggression is necessary, so that might rise to 20.  IF you think your partner understands this and will bid this way, then you pass;  you have that just about on the nose.

Akin to Least Lie is, when you can only make 1 bid, picking the bid that fits best.  Say you have

AD AD KD QD JD AC TC QC QC JC AH TH QH QH AS AS TS TS QS JS

You could show aces or show 20 in CABS.  IMO you can't do both;  you can make 1 bid with no place to play the hand, but you MUST have a playable spot in mind to make a second bid.  You don't, here.  So, would you rather give aces, or 20, playing CABS?  Neither is wrong;  they're both incomplete but not inaccurate descriptions.
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#2
(10-28-2014, 06:19 PM)ToreadorElder Wrote:  The Least Lie means, making the bid that comes closest to describing your hand, when it doesn't really fit anything.  This hand is an example:


AC AC KC QC JC AD KD KD QD QD JD AS AS TS JS TH  TH TH QH JH

You're South.  East bids 50.  Now what?  

In this case, I'd pass.  Since my hand is relatively balanced and the bid is most likely going to go to East (who showed interest) or my partner, I have a good chance of making all my aces good no matter who calls trump.  With only 10 meld, there's not enough to give a meld bid, and I don't really want to be declarer.

(10-28-2014, 06:19 PM)ToreadorElder Wrote:  --You're using a strict aces bid, where it guarantees aces around...but you have the hand above as South.  East *passes*.  Choices are 50, 51, and 52.  The aces bid really does come closest;  50 as a save would also be plausible because of the diamond suit, but you do have a constructive hand for partner.

I agree - I'd give an aces bid.  In a worst-case scenario, I'd be stuck with it at 51 and call diamonds trump.  May be better than anything my partner has - especially if he couldn't save my aces bid.

(10-28-2014, 06:19 PM)ToreadorElder Wrote:  --Same situation, but now you as South are bidding first, AND it's double bidder out.  Same choices, and again...you've got a lot more help for partner than you might have.  A question of style comes into play.  I play that a passed partner will generally contribute 15 points, total, from meld and play.  In double bidder out, increased aggression is necessary, so that might rise to 20.  IF you think your partner understands this and will bid this way, then you pass;  you have that just about on the nose.

I'd probably still go with the 51, just to let him know I have *something* helpful.  In double bidders out, he'd probably stretch that a bit...but at least I'd have some support.  Maybe with my 5 aces and a decent hand from my partner, worst-case is we make 31 playing even if we get set.

(10-28-2014, 06:19 PM)ToreadorElder Wrote:  Akin to Least Lie is, when you can only make 1 bid, picking the bid that fits best.  Say you have

AD AD KD QD JD AC TC QC QC JC AH TH QH QH AS AS TS TS QS JS

You could show aces or show 20 in CABS.  IMO you can't do both;  you can make 1 bid with no place to play the hand, but you MUST have a playable spot in mind to make a second bid.  You don't, here.  So, would you rather give aces, or 20, playing CABS?  Neither is wrong;  they're both incomplete but not inaccurate descriptions.

I don't agree with the logic.  Let's say I bid 51, LHO passes, and my partner bids 52.  I *know* he's got at least something worthy of a save...so I don't have a problem giving him a 20-meld bid the next time around (assuming my RHO stays in and I am able to do so).

In most cases, I'd bid the aces first.  Depending on the situation, I may not even give the 20-meld bid after the aces bid because my partner's probably figuring me for a little more than 10 anyway.  If it's double bidders out, I may just give a 20 meld bid since that's probably more important and chances are I'm not going to have the opportunity to signal bid again.
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#3
ToreadorElder Wrote: Wrote:Akin to Least Lie is, when you can only make 1 bid, picking the bid that fits best.  Say you have

[Image: AD.png] [Image: AD.png] [Image: KD.png] [Image: QD.png] [Image: JD.png] [Image: AC.png] [Image: TC.png] [Image: QC.png] [Image: QC.png] [Image: JC.png] [Image: AH.png] [Image: TH.png] [Image: QH.png] [Image: QH.png] [Image: AS.png] [Image: AS.png] [Image: TS.png] [Image: TS.png] [Image: QS.png] [Image: JS.png] 

You could show aces or show 20 in CABS.  IMO you can't do both;  you can make 1 bid with no place to play the hand, but you MUST have a playable spot in mind to make a second bid.  You don't, here.  So, would you rather give aces, or 20, playing CABS?  Neither is wrong;  they're both incomplete but not inaccurate descriptions.


Quote:I don't agree with the logic.  Let's say I bid 51, LHO passes, and my partner bids 52.  I *know* he's got at least something worthy of a save...so I don't have a problem giving him a 20-meld bid the next time around (assuming my RHO stays in and I am able to do so).

This is preconditioned on the state of the auction allowing you to give 20, yes.

I did that up until maybe 2 years ago, but decided it's a bad idea.  All partner did was save.  Assume that's all he has;  it makes little sense to essentially force him to bid again, just to tell the same story.  He *should* be allowed to pass.  

In bridge, there are actions that are called Forcing:  partner CANNOT pass, if the intervening opponent passes.  There are actions that are Semi-Forcing;  partner will bid MOST of the time.  There are Non-Forcing actions;  partner will often pass.  There are close-out bids:  partner is *expected* to pass.  Finally, there are bids that promise a rebid, within limits.  These notions are VERY useful in pinochle:

--about the only forcing bid is the 59, double aces bid.  

--Making a meld-ask bid promises a rebid if partner gives meld.  This is part of the captaincy aspect.  The promise runs only so high, of course;  if the auction starts
South 50
West 53
North 56
East 75

South isn't compelled to bid 80.

--Semi-Forcing:  you are semi-forced when you are in save position.  If you pass, things can be very bad, including the auto-set because you have no marriage.  So you bid suits and hands you normally wouldn't...ergo, semi-forced.  

--close-out:  Jumping to 60+ after partner gives meld (as his first bid).  Opening 60+;  partner can bid with enough meld to show (at least 30) but would need an incredible hand to ask to be declarer.

Non-forcing:  partner is expected to pass if he has nothing to say...so when he DOES bid, it's meaningful.  I feel that the sequence here...South starts with aces, then gives meld, is in this category.  North responded to the semi-forcing aces bid.  It makes little sense to force North again...so any rebid South makes is non-forcing.  North needs some reason to bid again;  he will often pass.  THAT means, South has to be able to withstand North's pass...ergo, have a playable trump suit.  Or more generally, my 2nd bid, and all subsequent, are inherently NOT forcing, on all auctions.  It just sets up a cleaner structure with somewhat more restricted, but better defined, bids.
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